UPSC Prelim 2024 Paper 1 : General Studies

UPSC Prelim 2024 Paper 1 : General Studies

1. How many delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

(a) One

(b) Two

(d) Four

2. The Constitution (71^st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eights Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

1. Konkani

2. Manipuri

3. Nepali

4. Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

3. Consider the following pairs:

Party	Its Leader
Bharatiya Jana Sangh	Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
Socialist Party	C. Rajagopalachari
Congress for Democracy	Jagjivan Ram
Swatantra Party	Acharya Narendra Dev

How many of the above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

4. Which of the following statements are correct about the constitution of India?

1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.

2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.

3. Provisions related to the amendment of the constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

5. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.

(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.

(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

6. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 16

(d) Article 21

7. What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?

1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee

2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs

3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

8. Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:

(a) Operations Sankalp

(b) Operation Maitri

(d) Operation Madad

9. The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:

(a) Canada and the United States of America

(b) Chile and Argentina

(d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation

10. Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?

1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.

2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.

3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

11. Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari

(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

12. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.

2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?

(a) Kavyalankara

(b) Natyashastra

(d) Mahabhashya

14. Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on:

(a) Prajnaparamita Sutra

(b) Visuddhimagga

(d) Lalitavistara

15. Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:

1. Shantiniketan

2. Rani-ki-Vav

3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas

4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya

How many of the above properties were included in 2023?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

16. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

1. Addition

2. Variation

3. Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 2 and 3

17. Consider the following countries:

1. Italy

2. Japan

3. Nigeria

4. South Korea

5. south Africa

Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 5

(d) 3 and 5 only

18. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.

2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.

3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.

4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

19. Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?

	Army	Airforce	Navy
1.	Brigadier	Air Commodore	Commander
2.	Major General	Air Vice Marshal	Vice Admiral
3.	Major	Squadron Leader	Lieutenant commander
4.	Lieutenant Colonel	Group Captain	Captain

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

20. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

1. Governor of the Constituent State

2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State

3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India

4. The Home Minister of India

Select the Correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

21. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:

1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18^th Lok Sabha.

2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.

3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3

22. Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct?

1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.

2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).

3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.

4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

23. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.

(b) the parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.

(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy

24. Consider the following statements:

1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.

2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

25. With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the House of Parliament.

2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

26. Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”?

(a) Bhupender Yadav

(b) Nalin Mehta

(d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

27. Consider the following pairs:

	Country	Reason for being in the news
1	Argentina	Worst economic crisis
2	Sudan Forces	War between the country’s regular army and paramilitary
3	Turkey	Rescinded its membership of NATO

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) None of the pairs

28. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.

Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

29. Consider the following statements:

1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.

2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

30. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of Sulphur dioxide emissions?

(a) Locomotives using fossil fuels

(b) Ships using fossil fuels

(d) Power plants using fossil fuels.

31. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.

Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

32. Consider the following statements:

Statement-l: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.

Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

33. Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:

1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India RBI alignment with its monetary policy.

2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.

3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.

4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

34. With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets?

1. Nayaputta

2. Shakyamuni

3. Tathagata

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha

35. In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 47

36. Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?

(a) Krishnadevaraya

(b) Narasimha Saluva

(d) Yusuf Adil Shah

37. With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, statements: consider the following

1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of had harvests or natural calamities.

2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.

Which of the statements given above is ware correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

38. Consider the following statements:

1. There are parables in Upanishads.

2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither I nor 2

39. Consider the following statements:

1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.

2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

40. Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?

(a) Chhau dance

(b) Durga puja

(d) Kumbh mela

41. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.

Statement-II: There have been military takeovers/coups d’etat in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II in correct

42. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America.

Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

43. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration

1. He She shall not preside

2. He/She shall not have the right to speak

3. He She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

44. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution

2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

45. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.

2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.

3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

46. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.

Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

47. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.

Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

48. With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:

1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.

2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.

3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

49. With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements

1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility

2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

50. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:

1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.

2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.

3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.

4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

51. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.

Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

52. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.

Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

53. Consider the following:

1. Pyroclastic debris

2. Ash and dust

3. Nitrogen compounds

4. Sulphur compounds

How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

54. Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January?

1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.

2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

55. Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?

(a) Algeria and Morocco

(b) Botswana and Namibia

(d) Madagascar and Mozambique

56. With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?

(a) Ghaghara – Gomati – Gandak – Kosi

(b) Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi

(d) Gomati – Ghaghara – Kosi – Gandak

57. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.

Statement-II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.

Statement-III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I

(d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

58. Consider the following countries:

1. Finland

2. Germany

3. Norway

4. Russia

How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

59. Consider the following information:

	Waterfall	Region	River
1.	Dhuandhar	Malwa	Narmada
2.	Hundru	Chota Nagpur	Subarnarekha
3.	Gersoppa	Western Ghats	Netravati

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

60. Consider the following information:

	Region	Name of the mountain range	Type of mountain
1.	Central	Vosges	Fold mountain
2.	Europe	Alps	Block mountain
3.	North America	Appalachians	Fold mountain
4.	South America	Andes	Fold mountain

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

61. The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater” are:

(a) Birds

(b) Fish

(d) Reptiles

62. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution.

Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

63. Consider the following pair:

	Country	Animal found in its natural habitat
1.	Brazil	Indri
2.	Indonesia	Elk
3.	Madagascar	Bonobo

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

64. Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization:

1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.

2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.

3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3

65. Consider the following statements:

1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season.

2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.

3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

66. Which one of the following is the correct description of “100 Million Farmers”?

(a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.

(b) It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.

(c) It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.

(d) It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.

67. Consider the following:

1. Battery storage

2. Biomass generators

3. Fuel cells

4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units

How many of the above are considered “Distributed Energy Resources”?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

68. Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?

(a) Fig

(b) Mahua

(d) Silk cotton

69. Consider the following:

1. Butterflies

2. Fish

3. Frogs

How many of the above have poisonous species among them?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

70. Consider the following:

1. Cashew

2. Papaya

3. Red sanders

How many of the above trees are actually native to India?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

71. Consider the following airports:

1. Donyi Polo Airport

2. Kushinagar International Airport

3. Vijayawada International Airport

In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

72. With reference to “water vapour”, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.

2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

73. Consider the following description:

1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.

2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year.

3. Precipitation varies between 50cm – 250cm.

What is this type of climate?

(a) Equatorial climate

(b) China type climate

(d) Marine West coast climate

74. With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It increases with increase in wind velocity.

2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

75. On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours?

1. Equator

2. Tropic of Cancer

3. Tropic of Capricorn

4. Arctic Circle

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 4

76. One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?

(a) Amazon Basin

(b) Congo Basin

(d) Rio de la Plata Basin

77. With reference to perfluoroalkly and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements:

1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.

2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.

3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

78. Consider the following:

1. Carabid beetles

2. Centipedes

3. Flies

4. Termites

5. Wasps

Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All five

79. Consider the following plants:

1. Groundnut

2. Horse-gram

3. Soybean

How many of the above belong to the pea family?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

80. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Statement-II: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

81. The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:

(a) the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.

(b) the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.

(d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

82. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.

2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).

3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

83. In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?

1. Insurance Companies

2. Pension Funds

3. Retail Investors

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

84. Consider the following:

1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)

2. Motor vehicls

3. Currency swap

Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

85. With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

	Economic activity	Sector
1.	Storage of agricultural produce	Secondary
2.	Dairy farm	Primary
3.	Mineral exploration	Tertiary
4.	Weaving cloth	Secondary

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

86. Consider the following materials:

1. Agricultural residues

2. Corn grains

3. Wastewater treatment sludge

4. Wood mill waste

Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

87. With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

	Items	Category
1.	Farmer’s plough	Working capital
2.	Computer	Fixed capital
3.	Yarn used by the weaver	Fixed capital
4.	Petrol	Working capital

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

88. Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote “an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items.”?

(a) Big data analytics

(b) Cryptography

(d) Virtual matrix

89. With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements:

1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.

2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

90. With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:

1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or the employees will not be considered as CSR activities.

2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

91. With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements:

1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors

2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.

3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

92. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.

Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but and Statement-II does not explains Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

93. Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increase blood flow?

(a) Nitric oxide

(b) Nitrous oxide

(d) Nitrogen pentoxide

94. Consider the following activities:

1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft

2. Monitoring of precipitation

3. Tracking the migration of animals

In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

95. Consider the following aircraft:

1. Rafael

2. MiG-29

3. Tejas MK-1

How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

96. In which of the following are hydrogels used?

1. Controlled drug delivery in patients

2. Mobile air-conditioning systems

3. Preparation of industrial lubricants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

97. Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?

(a) Hydrogen peroxide

(b) Hydronium

(d) Water vapour

98. Recently the term “pumped-storage hydropower” is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?

(a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields

(b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops

(d) Rainwater harvesting system

99. “Membrane Bioreactors” are often discussed in the context of

(a) Assisted reproductive technologies

(b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies

(d) Wastewater treatment technologies

100. With reference to the Indian economy, “Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations” are the instruments of:

(a) Bond market

(b) Forex market

(d) Stock market

UPSC Prelim 2024 Paper 1 : General Studies

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